SK0-005 Free Exam Study Guide! (Updated 390 Questions)
SK0-005 Dumps for CompTIA Server+ Certified Exam Questions and Answer
CompTIA SK0-005 is a certification exam that is designed to test the knowledge and skills of IT professionals in managing and maintaining server hardware and software. SK0-005 exam is intended for individuals who are responsible for managing and supporting server infrastructure in small, medium, and large enterprises.
CompTIA SK0-005 exam is an important certification for IT professionals who are interested in pursuing a career in server administration. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification covers a wide range of topics and demonstrates a candidate's ability to manage complex server environments. It is vendor-neutral and recognized globally, making it an excellent choice for individuals who are interested in pursuing an international career in IT. With the right preparation and hands-on experience, candidates can pass the exam and position themselves for career advancement.
NEW QUESTION # 191
A server technician installs a new NIC on a server and configures the NIC for IP connectivity. The technician then tests the connection using the pingcommand. Given the following partial output of the pingand ipconfigcommands:
Which of the following caused the issue?
- A. Incorrect routing table
- B. Duplicate IP address
- C. DHCP misconfiguration
- D. Incorrect default gateway
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following types of asset management documentation is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component?
- A. Warranty
- B. Purchase order
- C. License
- D. Baseline document
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A warranty is a type of asset management documentation that is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component. A warranty is a guarantee from the manufacturer or vendor that covers the repair or replacement of defective parts within a specified period of time. A purchase order, a license, or a baseline document are not directly related to the replacement of a faulty server component. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Architecture, Objective 1.4: Explain asset management and documentation processes.
NEW QUESTION # 193
An administrator is investigating a physical server mat will not Boot into the OS. The server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array. The server passes POST, out the OS does not load. The administrator verities the CPU and RAM are Doth seated correctly and checks the dual power supplies. The administrator then verifies all the BIOS settings are correct and connects a bootable USB drive in the server, and the OS loads correctly. Which of the following is causing the issue?
- A. There are mismatched RAM modules.
- B. The page file is too small.
- C. There are multiple failed hard drives.
- D. RAID 5 requires four drives
- E. The CPU has failed.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 194
An administrator is troubleshooting a RAID issue in a failed server. The server reported a drive failure, and then it crashed and would no longer boot. There are two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAIO 0 set tor the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for dat a. Which of the following failure scenarios MOST likely occurred?
- A. A drive failed in the OS array.
- B. A drive failed in both of the arrays.
- C. A drive failed and then recovered in the data array.
- D. A drive failed in the data array.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 195
A remote, embedded loT server is having a Linux OS upgrade installed. Which of the following is the best method to stage the new media for the default boot device of the server?
- A. Copy and send a SATA drive to the site.
- B. Copy and send a DVD to the site.
- C. Copy and send an SSD to the site.
- D. Copy and send a microSD card to the site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A microSD card is the best method to stage the new media for the default boot device of a remote embedded IoT server that is having a Linux OS upgrade installed. A microSD card is a small and portable storage device that can store large amounts of data. It can be easily inserted into the slot of an embedded IoT server, which is a small and low-power device that performs specific tasks and connects to other devices over a network. A microSD card can also be formatted with different file systems, such as FAT32 or ext4, which are compatible with Linux OS. Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, configure servers for IoT applications.
NEW QUESTION # 196
The accounting department needs more storage and wants to retain the current data for quick read-write access. The accounting server does not have any internet drive bays available to keep both disks however the server does have USB 3 0 and eSATA ports available. Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish the department's goals?
- A. Move the existing data to a new. larger internal hard drive.
- B. Transfer the existing data to an external eSATA enclosure.
- C. Place the existing data on a DVD and use the internal DVD-ROM drive.
- D. Copy the existing data to an external USB 3 0 enclosure.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to accomplish the department's goals is to transfer the existing data to an external eSATA enclosure, which is a device that connects an external hard drive to a computer using an eSATA port. This will allow the accounting department to retain the current data for quick read-write access, as eSATA provides high-speed data transfer rates and supports hot-plugging. Unlike USB 3.0, eSATA does not share bandwidth with other devices, which can improve performance and reliability. Verified References: [eSATA vs USB 3.0]
NEW QUESTION # 197
A company deploys antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls that can be assumed to be functioning properly. Which of the following is the MOST likely system vulnerability?
- A. Two-person integrity
- B. Worms
- C. Open ports
- D. Ransomware
- E. Insider threat
Answer: E
Explanation:
Insider threat is the most likely system vulnerability in a company that deploys antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls that can be assumed to be functioning properly. An insider threat is a malicious or negligent act by an authorized user of a system or network that compromises the security or integrity of the system or network. An insider threat can include data theft, sabotage, espionage, fraud, or other types of attacks. Antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls are security tools that can protect a system or network from external threats, such as viruses, worms, ransomware, or open ports. However, these tools cannot prevent an insider threat from exploiting their access privileges or credentials to harm the system or network.
NEW QUESTION # 198
A technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Which of the following BEST represents how the technician should proceed with troubleshooting?
- A. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process.
- B. Make one change at a time and test.
- C. Perform a root cause analysis.
- D. Determine whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the best way to proceed with troubleshooting when the technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Making one change at a time and testing allows the technician to isolate the cause and effect of each solution and determine which one works best. It also helps to avoid introducing new problems or complicating existing ones by making multiple changes at once. Determining whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems is a good step to perform before identifying possible solutions, but not after. Performing a root cause analysis is a good step to perform after resolving the issue, but not during. Documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process is a good practice to follow at every step of troubleshooting, but not a specific way to proceed with testing possible solutions.
References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/174288/how-to-tell-if-your-computer-is-overheating-and-what-to-do-about-it/https:
NEW QUESTION # 199
Which of the following commands would MOST likely be used to register a new service on a Windows OS?
- A. services.msc
- B. sc
- C. net
- D. set-service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The sc command is used to create, delete, start, stop, pause, or query services on a Windows OS. It can also be used to register a new service by using the create option. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/sc-create
NEW QUESTION # 200
A storage administrator is investigating an issue with a failed hard drive. A technician replaced the drive in the storage array; however, there is still an issue with the logical volume. Which of the following best describes the NEXT step that should be completed to restore the volume?
- A. Replace the volume
- B. Format the volume
- C. Rebuild the volume
- D. Initialize the volume
Answer: C
Explanation:
The administrator should rebuild the volume to restore it after replacing the failed hard drive. A volume is a logical unit of storage that can span across multiple physical disks. A volume can be configured with different levels of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) to provide fault tolerance and performance enhancement. When a hard drive in a RAID volume fails, the data on that drive can be reconstructed from the remaining drives using parity or mirroring techniques. However, this process requires a new hard drive to replace the failed one and a rebuild operation to copy the data from the existing drives to the new one. Rebuilding a volume can take a long time depending on the size and speed of the drives and the RAID level.
NEW QUESTION # 201
A data center environment currently hosts more than 100 servers that include homegrown and commercial software. The management team has asked the server administrator to find a way to eliminate all company-owned data centers. Which of the following models will the administrator most likely choose to meet this need?
- A. Hybrid
- B. SaaS
- C. Public
- D. Private
Answer: C
Explanation:
A public cloud model will most likely meet the need of eliminating all company-owned data centers. A public cloud is a type of cloud computing service that is provided by a third-party vendor over the internet. A public cloud offers scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness for hosting servers and applications, as the customers only pay for the resources they use and do not have to maintain their own infrastructure. A public cloud can also provide high availability, security, and performance for the servers and applications, as the vendor manages the underlying hardware and software. A public cloud can support various types of services, such as software as a service (SaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), or infrastructure as a service (IaaS). Reference: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Administration, Objective 1.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast server roles and requirements for each.
NEW QUESTION # 202
A systems administrator has noticed performance degradation on a company file server, and one of the disks on it has a solid amber light. The administrator logs on to the disk utility and sees the array is rebuild ing.
Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT once the rebuild is finished?
- A. Swap the drive and initialize the disk.
- B. Restore the server from a snapshot.
- C. Restore the server from backup.
- D. Swap the drive and initialize the array.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The next action that the administrator should take once the rebuild is finished is to swap the drive and initialize the disk. This is to replace the faulty disk that has a solid amber light, which indicates a predictive failure or a SMART error. Initializing the disk will prepare it for use by the RAID controller and add it to the array. The administrator should also monitor the array status and performance after swapping the drive. Reference:
https://www.salvagedata.com/how-to-rebuild-a-failed-raid/
NEW QUESTION # 203
A server administrator is gathering business requirements to determine how frequently backups need to be performed on an application server. Which of the following is the administrator attempting to establish?
- A. MTTR
- B. RPO
- C. MTBF
- D. RFC
Answer: B
Explanation:
The administrator is attempting to establish the recovery point objective (RPO) by determining how frequently backups need to be performed on an application server. RPO is a metric that defines how much data can be lost or how far back in time a recovery can go in case of a disaster or disruption, based on the business requirements and impact analysis of an organization or system. RPO is measured by the time interval between backups or snapshots of data, such as hourly, daily, weekly, etc., depending on how critical or sensitive the data is and how often it changes or updates. Reference: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.3: Given a scenario, explain methods and techniques to secure data.
NEW QUESTION # 204
Hosting data in different regional locations but not moving it for long periods of time describes:
- A. on-site retention.
- B. a cold site.
- C. data at rest.
- D. off-site storage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Data at rest refers to data that is stored in a persistent state on any device or media, such as hard drives, tapes, or cloud storage. Data at rest does not move for long periods of time unless it is accessed or modified by authorized users or applications. A cold site (A) is a backup location that has minimal or no equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. On-site retention is a policy of keeping backup data on premises for a certain period of time before transferring it to an off-site location. Off-site storage (D) is a method of storing backup data in a remote location that is physically or logically separated from the primary site. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-atrest
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/144/cold-site
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/backup/onsite-offsite-backup.html
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24195/offsite-storage
NEW QUESTION # 205
Hosting data in different regional locations but not moving it for long periods of time describes:
- A. on-site retention.
- B. a cold site.
- C. data at rest.
- D. off-site storage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Data at rest refers to data that is stored in a persistent state on any device or media, such as hard drives, tapes, or cloud storage. Data at rest does not move for long periods of time unless it is accessed or modified by authorized users or applications. A cold site (A) is a backup location that has minimal or no equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. On-site retention is a policy of keeping backup data on premises for a certain period of time before transferring it to an off-site location. Off-site storage (D) is a method of storing backup data in a remote location that is physically or logically separated from the primary site. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-atrest
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/144/cold-site
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/backup/onsite-offsite-backup.htmlhttps://www.techopedia.com/definiti
NEW QUESTION # 206
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of right to downgrade?
- A. It allows a previous version of an OS to be installed and covered by the same license as the newer version
- B. It allows a server to run on fewer resources than what is outlined in the minimum requirements document without purchasing a license
- C. It allows for the return of a new OS license if the newer OS is not compatible with the currently installed software and is returning to the previously used OS
- D. It allows for a previous version of an OS to be deployed in a test environment for each current license that is purchased
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The concept of right to downgrade allows a previous version of an OS to be installed and covered by the same license as the newer version. For example, if a customer has a license for Windows 10 Pro, they can choose to install Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 7 Professional instead and still be compliant with the license terms.
Downgrade rights are granted by Microsoft for certain products and programs, such as Windows and Windows Server software acquired through Commercial Licensing, OEM, or retail channels. Downgrade rights are intended to provide customers with flexibility and compatibility when using Microsoft software.
NEW QUESTION # 207
Which of me following is the BEST action to perform before applying patches to one of the hosts in a high availability cluster?
- A. Fallback cluster services.
- B. Failover all VMs.
- C. Set the cluster to active-active.
- D. Disable the heartbeat network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the best action to perform before applying patches to one of the hosts in a high availability cluster. A high availability cluster is a group of hosts that act like a single system and provide continuous uptime. A high availability cluster is often used for load balancing, backup, and failover purposes. Failover is a process of transferring workloads from one host to another in case of a failure or maintenance. By failing over all VMs (Virtual Machines) from the host that needs to be patched to another host in the cluster, the technician can ensure that there is no downtime or data loss during the patching process. Disabling the heartbeat network is not a good action to perform, as this would disrupt the communication and synchronization between the hosts in the cluster. Fallback cluster services is not a valid term, but it may refer to restoring cluster services after a failover, which is not relevant before applying patches. Setting the cluster to active-active is not a good action to perform, as this would increase the load on both hosts and reduce redundancy. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understanding-techniques-and-fundamentals/
https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/
NEW QUESTION # 208
A server administrator encounters some issues with the server OS after applying monthly patches. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the administrator perform?
- A. Upgrade the drivers.
- B. Reboot the server.
- C. Reinstall the OS.
- D. Implement rollback procedures.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
This option would restore the server OS to a previous state before applying the monthly patches. This would help troubleshoot the issues caused by the patches and determine if they are compatible with the server OS.
The other options would either not address the issues, cause data loss, or require more time and resources
NEW QUESTION # 209
A server administrator is swapping out the GPU card inside a server.
Which of the following actions should the administrator take FIRST?
- A. Disconnect the power from the rack.
- B. Shut down the server.
- C. Ensure the GPU meets HCL guidelines.
- D. Inspect the GPU that is being installed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hardware must be compatible with HCL (Hardware Compatibility List).
NEW QUESTION # 210
A technician is monitoring a server and notices there is only one NIC plugged in. but the server has two. The NIC is oversaturated, and the technician would like to increase the available bandwidth. Which of the following solutions would be the BEST option to increase the speed of this NIC?
- A. Heartbeat
- B. Link aggregation
- C. Active-active
- D. Most recently used
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is the best solution to increase the speed of the NIC because link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical network interfaces into a single logical interface. This can increase the bandwidth, redundancy, and load balancing of network traffic. Link aggregation requires both the server and the switch to support it and be configured accordingly. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html
NEW QUESTION # 211
Which of the following backup types only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine?
- A. Snapshot
- B. Differential
- C. Synthetic full
- D. Incremental
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 212
A datacenter technician is attempting to troubleshoot a server that keeps crashing. The server runs normally for approximately five minutes, but then it crashes. After restoring the server to operation, the same cycle repeats.
The technician confirms none of the configurations have changed, and the load on the server is steady from power-on until the crash. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?
- A. Reinstalling the heat sink with new thermal paste
- B. Reseating any expansion cards in the server
- C. Replacing the failing hard drive
- D. Restoring the server from the latest full backup
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely solution to resolve the issue of the server crashing after running normally for approximately five minutes is to reinstall the heat sink with new thermal paste. A heat sink is a device that dissipates heat from a component, such as a processor or a graphics card, by transferring it to a cooling medium, such as air or liquid. A heat sink is usually attached to the component using thermal paste, which is a substance that fills the gaps between the heat sink and the component and improves thermal conductivity. Thermal paste can degrade over time and lose its effectiveness, resulting in overheating and performance issues. If a server crashes after running for a short period of time, it may indicate that the processor is overheating due to insufficient cooling.
To resolve this issue, the technician should remove the heat sink, clean the old thermal paste, apply new thermal paste, and reinstall the heat sink.
NEW QUESTION # 213
A server is performing slowly, and users are reporting issues connecting to the application on that server.
Upon investigation, the server administrator notices several unauthorized services running on that server that are successfully communicating to an external site. Which of the following are MOST likely causing the issue?
(Choose two.)
- A. Adware is installed on the users' devices
- B. The server is infected with a virus
- C. The firewall rule for the server is misconfigured
- D. Unnecessary services are disabled on the server
- E. SELinux is enabled on the server
- F. Intrusion detection is enabled on the network
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Explanation
The server is infected with a virus and SELinux is enabled on the server are most likely causing the issue of unauthorized services running on the server. A virus is a type of malicious software that infects a system and performs unwanted or harmful actions, such as creating, modifying, deleting, or executing files. A virus can also create backdoors or open ports on a system to allow remote access or communication with external sites.
SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) is a security module for Linux systems that enforces mandatory access control policies on processes and files. SELinux can prevent unauthorized services from running on a server by restricting their access to resources based on their security context. However, SELinux can also cause problems if it is not configured properly or if it conflicts with other security tools.
NEW QUESTION # 214
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